Hi,
I have a question related to InstanceSpecifications.
In a user model, consider a Class C1 which owns a property p1 of type
Integer (the built-in UML PrimitiveType).
Now an InstanceSpecification I1 of class C1 gets created. It has a slot
for the property p1 into which an object of type ValueSpecification can
be put.
My question is:
- Does UML2 allow to put a LiteralInteger object directly into the slot
(the UML 2.1 Superstructure spec seems to allow that), or does it have
to be another InstanceSpecification object which in turn owns the
LiteralInteger object via its specification association (which is what
my UML2 based UML Editor causes to happen) ? (i.e. one indirection level
more)